Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 06:57
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
How do I rat my boss out for serial cheating on his wife?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Is there a specific time frame for therapists to tell their clients they are wrong?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.